Isaiah 7:14 vs Matthew 1:22
Matthew 1:22-23
[22] Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, [23] Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, G-d with us. (KJV)
Isaiah 7:14
Therefore, my Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the maiden will become pregnant and bear a son, and she will name him Immanuel. (Artscroll Tanach)
Maiden? It is NOT debatable that this word must be translated as maiden or young woman. The Hebrew word used here is "almah". Had the writer wanted to use the term virgin, he would've used the Hebrew word "be'tulah". This word is used five other times in Isaiah but NOT HERE. Most modern translations of the Bible DO translate this correctly as "young woman".
Now let's read this prophecy in context.
Isaiah 7:11-16
[11] Ask thee a sign of the LORD thy G-d; ask it either in the depth, or in the height above. [12] But Ahaz said, I will not ask, neither will I tempt the LORD. [13] And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; [Is it] a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my G-d also? [14] Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. [15] Butter and honey shall he eat, that he may know to refuse the evil, and choose the good. [16] For before the child shall know to refuse the evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorrest shall be forsaken of both her kings. (Artscroll Tanach)
This is a pronouncement to the Jews living at the time and the birth is meant to be a sign for them.
Does this happen? YES! The prophecy was fulfilled in Isaiah 8:3
Isaiah 8:3-4
3 Then I went to the prophetess, and she conceived and gave birth to a son. And the LORD said to me, "Name him Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz. 4 Before the boy knows how to say 'My father' or 'My mother,' the wealth of Damascus and the plunder of Samaria will be carried off by the king of Assyria."
So in Isaiah 7 we see that a sign will be given to Ahaz meaning it will come while he's alive. Ahaz shouldn't be waiting for a sign for 500 years, should he? In the next chapter a young woman is pregnant and gives birth - WHAT A COINCIDENCE! But he's not named Immanuel. Hmmm... what does the rest of the chapter say?
5 The LORD spoke to me again: 6 "Because this people has rejected the gently flowing waters of Shiloah and rejoices over Rezin and the son of Remaliah, 7 therefore the Lord is about to bring against them the mighty floodwaters of the River [b]— the king of Assyria with all his pomp. It will overflow all its channels, run over all its banks 8 and sweep on into Judah, swirling over it, passing through it and reaching up to the neck. Its outspread wings will cover the breadth of your land, O Immanuel [c] !"
Yes - "O Immanuel" meaning that Immanuel must already be there. Could it be the child of the prophetess? I don't see another option.
It's really tough to try to make this passage apply to Jesus - he simply doesn't fit it. "Behold a young woman will be with child." Correctly translated the verse is pretty pedestrian and could refer to any Messiah wannabe.
Why can't this verse refer to Jesus?
The child is a sign - not The Messiah.
"will call him Immanuel", Jesus was not called Immanuel.
"16 But before the boy knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right, the land of the two kings you dread will be laid waste"
What does this have to do with Jesus? Nothing! However it makes sense when it is applied to the child of the prophetess.
17 The LORD will bring on you and on your people and on the house of your father a time unlike any since Ephraim broke away from Judah—he will bring the king of Assyria."
Assyria ceased to exist 500 years before Jesus.
In summary:
The prophecy makes perfect sense when applied to the child of the prophetess.
The prophecy makes no sense whatsoever in application to Jesus.
Of my 10 point prophecy challenge, this prophecy fulfills NOTHING!